Tuesday, 4 July 2017

SSC MTS Result 2017 - Check SSC Multitasking Non Technical Exam Result Online

SSC stands for Staff Selection Commission. It is an attached office of DPT (Department of Personnel and Training) Under the Central Government of India. The SSC functions to recruit SSC staffs belonging to Group 'B' posts under various Ministries of Indian Government. Belonging to Group 'C' Non-Technical posts under different departments of the Indian government. They recruit by conducting examinations and interviews region wise for the vacant positions yearly.

SSC MTS Exam 2017


The SSC tries to make sure that if possible, a candidate is given posting in their home region itself. SSC MTS Exams are conducted to recruit the NonTechnical Multi Tasking Staffs. Exams will be held yearly or otherwise.

The examination will want for four or five dates based on the number of applicants applied. For a candidate to apply or appear for SSC MTS 2017 exams, primarily he must be a citizen of either India, Nepal, Bhutan or an Indian origin refugee from Tibet or countries like Sri Lanka, Pakistan, East Africa who came to India before January 1, 1962. He must be Matriculation/Tenth passed. He should not be exceeded an age of 25 years for general category or the age as prescribed for candidate belonging to that particular group. Let's check out more details about SSC MTS region wise results 2017

SSC MTS Result

SSC MTS Result 2017


The most awaited SSC MTS Result will be announced on June/July 2017. We will update the results right after getting the official details from SSC authorities. You can check the result without any delay or stuck from our site. Just bookmark to get latest SSC MTS result update here.

SSC MTS REGION WISE RESULT

States Sub-Region Result
 Maharashtra, Gujarat and Goa  SSC MTS Western Region (WR)Result  Click here                   
 Rajasthan, Delhi, and Uttarakhand  SSC Northern Region (NR)  Click here
 Karnataka & Kerala  Karnataka Region (KKR)Result  Click here
 Andhra Pradesh (AP), Tamil Nadu (TN), and Puducherry  SSC MTS Southern Region (SR) Result  Click here
 Jharkhand, West Bengal (WB), Odisha, A&N Island and Sikkim  SSC MTS Eastern Region (ER) Result  Click here
 Punjab, J&K, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh (HP)  SSC MTS North Western Region (NWR) Result  Click here
 Uttar Pradesh (UP) & Bihar  SSC MTS Central Region (CR) Result  Click here
 Arunachal Pradesh (AP), Manipur, Assam, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram  SSC MTS North Eastern Region (NER) Result  Click here
 Madhya Pradesh (MP) & Chhattisgarh  SSC MTS Madhya Pradesh Sub-Region (MPR) Result  Click here

SSC MTS Result 2017 Date: July/August 2017

SSC MTS Exam Result: TBA

The SSC will announce the examination once there are posts to be filled. The registration of the exam will be held online. This year in 2017, registration for the test started from December 31, 2016. The online registration will continue usually for one month. For 2017 exams, the deadline for online registration date is 30th January 2017.

SSC MTS Exam Online Application details


The application fee for the exams can be remitted through State Bank of India branches or through online payment services. The online application is a two-part process. In the first part, we have to enter in the details to make an account. After that chalan receipt has to be printed.

Once the payment has been made, then you can do the second part of registration. For those candidates who registered in SSC website and created an account, they don't have to do the first part of registration as it has been already done. What they have to do is just log in to their existing account, make the payment and complete the second part of the registration.

This will only take a few minutes. After the registration is completed, you can keep a copy of the printed application form, in case if you need to present it somewhere or like to keep a copy with yourself. You don't have to send the application through the postal mail anymore. The process has been made entirely quickly by SSC officials through online. You can then prepare for the examination by referring good books that can help you score better in your SSC MTS tests.

How to Apply SSC MTS 2017 Online?

SSC MTS Exam 2017 Date 


SSC MTS Exam will be conducted on four days. Candidates will be informed of the date and place of examination online or find you admit card. Check out the dates below.

SSC MTS 2017 Exam Dates (NEW)

Official Update: The SSC - Staff Selection Commission officially canceled all exams held on 28th May, 4th June, and 11th June 2017 and the re-exam dates are not yet published. New dates will be out soon. Bookmark this post for updates.

Note: old dates 16th April, 30th April and 7th May 2017 were changed to new dates below.

To be Announced

The first exam will be on Sunday, 30th April 2017. All dates are changed. So just share the revised dates with your friends who are writing SSC MTS exam 2017.

The date of examination will generally be held after two or months after the registration has been completed. Then keep in touch with SSC updates. Because some day your admit card will be available. You can download the admit card. In the admit card you will get the venue details, time to appear for the examination and also the date of your examinations. As said earlier the SSC conduct exams for four or five or six days based on the number of applications they get. So your examination date may not be your friend's study period. Appear for the examination in time; attend the examinations well, so that you get qualified for your interview examinations too.

Read more on SSC MTS 2017 Exam Dates here


Important Dates for SSC MTS Exam 2017


Note down these days for those who are preparing for SSC MTS exam 2017.

Online Application starts from 31/12/2016
Last Date to Submit Online Application for SSC MTS 2017 exam: 30/1/2017
Last Date for Fee Payment: 17/1/2017

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Monday, 19 June 2017

Bihar Board 10th/SSC result 2017 Date, Time and Check Online

BSEB, The Bihar School Education is to announce the class 10 results today. The exams were conducted from date March 1 to March 8, 2017. The result was supposed to be announced two weeks earlier. Typically the board takes about 40 to 50 days to prepare the results. The plus 2 results declared by the Bihar School Education Board a few days back is not yet free from controversy.

The controversies are there since the last year's result announcement.  Last year, the exposed toppers scam was the reason for discussion with the results. This year a student named Ganesh Kumar is arrested for conducting fraud. Also 64 students out 100 failed this year, which means more than half of students who wrote the exams is not eligible for higher education. Tenth results are important as class 10 is the base of our education system.


Bihar 10th Result 2017


The result publication date last year was May 29. Totally 15.47 lakh students attended the BSEB tenth exams last year, and 8.21 lakh of them could not make the exams.

Check Bihar SSC result here: Link updated soon during result declaration.

The pass percentage of boys is 54%, and that of girls is 37.61%.

Result Date: 22nd June 2017

Time: 1 pm

How to Check the Bihar Board Class 10 result 2017?


Step 1: Go to the official BSEB website Bihar board.ac.in
Step2: Click on the "Matric Result 2017" link on the home page
Step3: Fill in the Roll number and Security Code
Step 4: Click on the "Submit" button, and you will get a page with your result marks and percentage
Step 5: Save the result for further reference. If needed, a printout can be taken.

About Bihar State Education Board(BSEB)


BSEB was established long back and conducts the board exams for Matriculation and Intermediate level. The board exams are generally held in February and March months of every year.


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Tuesday, 6 June 2017

SSC JE Tier 1 Result 2017 Declared

The Staff Selection Commission is to declare the Junior Engineer examination results today. The examination was conducted by SSC to fill out the vacant Civil, Mechanical, Electrical Junior Engineer posts and Quantity Surveying & Contract posts.

The examination was performed as two sections. The first section was about the corresponding engineering subject(Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, etc.) and the second section According to the official announcement, the results will be available from 8 PM today. The examination for Junior Engineers was conducted from dates March 1 to March 4, 2017.

3,39,379 candidates wrote the examination this year. Out of 339379 candidates, 133983 candidates were civil engineering graduates,115075 candidates were mechanical engineering candidates, and 90321 candidates were electrical engineering candidates.



Marks of candidates who wrote the examination and answer keys will be published soon.

SSE JE Result 2017


Just a few hours left to declare the results of SSE JE. As per the official news from SSC, results will be announced at 8 PM. Just follow the instructions to check the result without any issues.

SSE JE result date: 6th June 2017

How to check the SSE JE Results 2017?

Just follow the steps and get your result fast.

* Enter into the official Staff Selection Commission website ssc.nic.in
* In the home page, you will find the link of 'Result of Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, * Quantity Surveying and Contract) Examination-2017.'
* You will be redirected to a new page, showing SSC JE Result 2017
* In the provided list of selected candidates. look for you roll number
* If needed take a hard copy print of the results.

Salary and Grade Pay details of SSC JE


The grade pay for various posts are as follows:
Junior Engineer (Civil): Rs.4,200
Junior Engineer (Mechanical): Rs.4,200
Junior Engineer (Electrical): Rs.4,200
Junior Engineer(Electrical and Mechanical): Rs.4200
Junior Engineer (Quantity Surveying & Contract): Rs.4200

The Gross salary for various posts are as follows:
Junior Engineer (Civil): Rs.32667 – 37119
Junior Engineer (Mechanical): Rs.32667 – 37119
Junior Engineer (Electrical): Rs.32667 – 37119
Junior Engineer(Electrical and Mechanical): Rs.32667 – 37119
Junior Engineer (Quantity Surveying & Contract): Rs.32667 – 37119

Educational requirement for SSC JE


The educational requirement for SSC JE is Degree/Diploma in the respective engineering field from a recognized university/institute.

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Wednesday, 24 May 2017

SSC MTS Re-exam dates and updates

So another big update from Staff Selection Commission (SSC). All MTS exams 2017 were canceled and new dates will be announced soon this week. Two exams already conducted on 30th April and 14th May and as per the older pattern, three more exams on 28th May, 4th June, and 11th June need to be conducted but SSC officially canceled all five exams now. Due to paper leakage and issues, SSC is planning to conduct the computer based exam. The fresh dates are not yet published.

MTS 2017 Paper Leak: Staff Selection Commission officially canceled the afternoon exam of Paper 1 due to question paper leakage. The exams were held at Morning and afternoon sessions. The first exam which was scheduled on 30th April 2017 which started off with the issues of circulating question paper and answer keys on Social medias which forced the SSC officials to cancel the exam in the afternoon session. The new dates were not yet fixed. Stay tuned for updates in the coming days. From the latest reports, more than 70 lakh candidates have been applied for MTS exam 2017.

ssc mts re exam 2017

SSC MTS new exam dates 2017

Just follow or bookmark this posts for latest updates on SSC MTS 2017 re exam announcement. We will update the dates right after the official announcement from SSC officials. Stay tuned here.

SSC MTS exam reschedule dates update: TBA

Words from SSC Officials regarding re-exams:


“The re-examination for only those candidates who appeared in this shift will be held in due course, and the candidates would be suitably informed accordingly. The inconvenience caused to the candidates is regretted,”

SSC MTS Paper 1 afternoon re-exam date: Notified soon

Note: Re-exam dates will be soon announced by the SSc officials. We will update revised date for canceled exam in the coming days.

Upcoming dates for MTS exam 2017


The first exam is now over on 30th April 2017. Note the dates, 28th May 2017, 4th June 2017, and 11th June 2017 and a re-exam of Paper 1 afternoon session which was not officially confirmed.

Read this: Check SSC MTS region wise results and cut-off marks here

Written examination pattern


There will be two papers. Paper 1 includes objective type questions and paper 2 with descriptive type.

Paper 1 details:

Marks: 150

Time: Two hours (General candidates) and Two hours, Forty minutes for visually handicapped/cerebral palsy candidates.

General intelligence and reasoning
Numerical aptitude
general English
General awareness

Paper 2 details:

Paper 2 includes Descriptive type where candidates have to write short letters, essays or stories. This will be based on Paper 1 cut-off as per the SSC.

Selection:


Candidates who crack the written examination will undergo Final interview which is the final step to get the job.

You can check SSC MTS results online all regions. Results will be declared in August 2017

Total posts: 8300 posts.

Pay scale:

Rs 5200 to Rs 20,200

Grade pay: Rs 1800

We will post SSC MTS 2017 Cut-off marks and results in the coming days.

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Tuesday, 23 May 2017

Check SSC MTS KKR (Karnataka/Kerala) region result 2017 online

The result of SSC examination for the recruitment of Multi Tasking Staff for the year 2017 will be published in August month. The examination for SSC MTS Kerala Karnataka (KKR) region was held on 30th April, 14th May, 28th May, 4th June and 11th June 2017.

According to the official announcement, the examination was conducted for 8300 Multi tasking staff post vacancies all over India. The SSC MTS examination 2017 was conducted through 124 examination centres, and these examination centres were managed under 9 regions. Let's check out more on result details below.

ssc mts karnataka region result 2017

SSC MTS Karnataka/Kerala region result 2017


Get ready to check SSC MTS KKR region result. Choose your regions (Karnataka or Kerala) and get your result

SSC MTS Karnataka region result

Kerala MTS result
Kartnataka MTS 2017 result

Check SSC MTS 2017 KKR region result here: www.ssckkr.kar.nic.in

Results will be available through the official portal of SSC KKR region here.

Result link will be active soon after getting official confirmation from SSC  board.

SSC MTS admit cards are out now. Get your SSC MTS admit card for all regions here

The selection criteria:


The selection of candidates is based on the marks in Paper 1 and Paper 2. Paper 1 marks are more important, and paper 2 marks are only needed for qualifying. The cut-off marks for paper 1 is different for each state. The cut-off marks are decided at the discretion of the Staff Selection Commission. The cut-offs are selected based on the vacancies available in the state and the number of candidates passed(scored minimum qualifying marks) in the exams.

Only those candidates who scored required marks in paper 1 can appear for paper 2. Paper 1 is for 100 marks. Paper 2 is a descriptive type exam, and maximum marks for paper 2 is 50. From paper 2 candidates will be shortlisted. After that posting will be done in the order of higher scores. The results are published in the PDF format.

Related post: Download SSC MTS exam result all regions PDF format here.


Important dates to remember


Paper 1 examination dates: April 16, April 30 and May 7, 2017
Declaration of Paper 1 results: August 2017
Paper 2 exam date: December 17, 2017
Declaration of final result: February 2018

Note: Just bookmark this post or site for any changes in the dates.

Read this: Winning books to prepare for SSC MTS Exam 2017

Cut off Marks

Here come the Cutoff marks for SSC MTS KKR region 2017. You can find Karnataka, Kerala and Lakshadweep figures in all categories below.

 Category  Karnataka  Kerala  Lakshadweep
 General  96.00  86.25  67.50
 OBC  88.00  80.00  72.00
 SC  82.25  75.25
 ST  74.25  69.00

After the results

Once a candidate is passed in paper 1 and paper 2, he/she will be called for document verification. Once the document verification is completed, nomination list will be issued. By list, recruitment is done.
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SSC MTS Exam Centers 2017 - All states and regions

SSC officially announced the full list of examination centers for 2017. SSC MTS examination is an examination conducted by the Staff Selection Commission  Committee of India. The test is carried out all over India through different examination centers.

The full list of examination centres and their centre codes are listed here.  A candidate should specify the examination centre in which he likes to appear for the SSC MTS examination in the order of their preference. All the examination centres are grouped into 9 regions and each region has a regional office and their respective local officers.

Update: SSC officially canceled all five MTS exams 2017 and you can find new/re-exam dates here

SSC MTS Exam Centers


Full list of SSC MTS Examination centres Region wise 


Here are all study centres with centre codes listed Regionwise.

State / UTState Pref. CodeExamination Centres & Centre CodeAddress of the Regional Offices
1234
ChandigarhAChandigarh (1601)Dy. Director (NWR),
Staff Selection Commission,
Block No.3, Gr.Floor,
Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9,
Chandigarh-160017.
Jammu & KashmirBJammu (1004), Leh (1005),
Srinagar (1007)
HaryanaCHisar (1803)
Himachal PradeshDHamirpur (1202) Shimla (1203)
PunjabEBhathinda (1401),
Jalandhar (1402)
DelhiFDelhi (2201)Regional Director (NR),
Staff Selection Commission,
Block No. 12,
CGO Complex, Lodhi Road,
New Delhi-110504.
RajasthanGAjmer (2401),
Alwar (2402),
Bharatpur (2403),
Bikaner (2404),
Jaipur (2405),
Jodhpur (2406),
Kota (2407),
Sriganganagar (2408)
Udaipur (2409)
UttarakhandHAlmora (2001),
Dehradun (2002),
Haldwani (2003)
Srinagar (Uttarakhand) (2004)
BiharIBhagalpur (3201),
Gaya (3203),
Muzaffarpur (3205),
Patna (3206)
Regional Director (CR),
Staff Selection Commission,
21-23, Lawther Road,
Allahabad,
Uttar Pradesh-211002.
Uttar PradeshJAgra (3001),
Allahabad (3003),
Bareilly (3005),
Gorakhpur (3007) ,
Kanpur (3009),
Lucknow (3010),
Meerut (3011),
Varanasi (3013)
JharkhandKRanchi (4205)Regional Director (ER),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st MSO Building, (8th Floor),
234/4. Acharya Jagadish Chandra,
Bose Road), Kolkata,
West Bengal-700020.
OdishaLBerhampore (4602),
Bhubaneshwar (4604),
Cuttack (4605),
Keonjhargarh (4606),
Sambalpur (4609),
West BengalMBarasat (4402),
Berhampore-WB (4403),
Chinsurah (4405),
Jalpaiguri (4408),
Kolkata (4410),
Malda (4412)
Midnapur (4413),
Siliguri (4415),
A&N IslandsNPort Blair (4802)
Sikkim OGangtok (4001)
Arunachal PradeshPItanagar (5001)Regional Director (NER),
Staff Selection Commission,
HOUSEFED Complex,
West End Block,
Last Gate,
Beltola Basistha Road,
Dispur, Guwahati,
Assam-781006.
AssamQDibrugarh (5102),
Goalpara (5104),
Guwahati (Dispur)(5105),
Jorhat (5107),
Lakhimpur (5109),
Silchar (5111),
Tezpur ( 5112)
ManipurRImphal (5501),
Churachandpur (5502)
MeghalayaSShillong (5401),
Tura (5402)
MizoramTAizwal (5701)
NagalandKohima (5302)
TripuraVAgartala (5601)
ChhattisgarhWAmbikapur (6201),
Bilaspur (6202),
Jagdalpur (6203),
Raipur (6204),
Durg (6205)
Dy. Director (MPR),
Staff Selection Commission,
“J-5, Anupam Nagar, Raipur,
Chhatisgarh-492001.
Madhya PradeshYBhopal (6001),
Chindwara (6003),
Guna (6004),
Gwalior (6005),
Indore (6006),
Jabalpur (6007)
Khandwa (6009),
Ratlam (6011),
Satna (6014),
Sagar (6015)
Daman & Diu and GoaZPanaji (7801)Regional Director (WR),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor, South Wing,
Pratishta Bhawan,
101 M.K. Road, Mumbai,
Maharashtra-400020.
Gujarat Dadra & Nagar Haveli1Ahmedabad (7001),
Vadodara (7002),
Rajkot (7006),
Surat (7007),
Bhavnagar (7009),
Kutch (7010)
Maharashtra2Amravati (7201),
Aurangabad (7202),
Kolhapur (7203),
Mumbai (7204),
Nagpur (7205),
Nanded (7206),
Nashik (7207),
Pune (7208),
Chandarpur (7209),
Jalgaon (7210),
Bhandara (7211)
Thane (7212),
Akola (7213)
Andhra Pradesh3Guntur (8001),
Kurnool (8003),
Rajahmundry (8004),
Tirupati (8006),
Vishakhapatnam (8007)
Regional Director (SR),
Staff Selection Commission,
EVK Sampath Building,
2nd Floor, College Road,
Chennai, Tamil Nadu-600006.
Telangana4Hyderabad (8601),
Nizamabad (8602),
Warangal (8603)
Puducherry & Tamilnadu5Puducherry (8401)
Chennai (8201),
Coimbatore (8202),
Madurai (8204),
Tiruchirapalli (8206)
Tirunelveli (8207)
Karnataka6Bangalore (9001),
Dharwar (9004),
Gulbarga (9005),
Mangalore (9008)
Regional Director (KKR),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor, “E” Wing,
Kendriya Sadan,
Koramangala,
Bangalore,
Karnataka-560034.
Kerala7Kochi (9204),
Kozhikode (Calicut) (9206)
Thiruvananthapuram (9211),
Thrissur (9212)
LakshadweepIslands8Kavaratti (9401)
Read this: Check SSC MTS exam result 2017 online here

If you are unable to find your center. Just comment below. We will update or send you through mail.

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Saturday, 20 May 2017

Download SSC MTS Answer Key - 30th April and 14th May 2017 Exams

SSC MTS Answer Key 2017 Download details: We have two exams completed of SSC MTS 2017 on 30th April and 14th May 2017. Candidates can have a clear picture on what type of question will be asked for the third exam scheduled on 28th May 2017. We have got full questions with answer keys here. You can also download pdf for question paper answer key of 30th April and 28th May form below. Staff Selection Commission has conducted the second session of the re-exam which was canceled on 30th April due to paper leaking on 14th May in different exam centers in India.

SSC MTS Answer Key

SSC MTS Answer Key 2017

Students can download both Answer key PDF of first two exams through our link below.

SSC MTS Answer Key 14th May 2017 - Download PDF


So you all are searching for the answer key of 14th May SSC MTS exam. You are in the right place. We have got full questions and answers for MTS exam 2017 here. Make sure to take a print out or save as PDF on your PC for future reference. You can easily get a complete idea to prepare for the third MTS exam on 28th May 2017.

SSC MTS Answer Key 2017 will be available through the official website of http://ssc.nic.in/. Just find out the answer key link and download as PDf or word document. Stay tuned for text file of MTS Answer Key 2017 here.

Get SSC MTS next exam dates here

SSC MTS Answer Key 30th May 2017 - PDF Download


You can find full answer key of MTS exam for 30th May 2017 below.


PART A : GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

Directions  :  In  questions  no.1  to  4,  select  the
related  word/letters/number  from  the  given
alternatives.

1.  9 : 8 : : 16 : ?
A.  17        B.  14
C.  27        D.  18
2.  Nose : Face : : Finger : ?
A.  Body        B.  Arm
C.  Hand       D.  Palm
3.  Cricket : Pitch : : ? : ?
A.  Wrestling : Track
B.  Boxing : Ring
C.  Ship : Dock
D.  Boat : Harbour
4.  STAR : TSRA : : ROSE : ?
A.  ORES        B.  ESOR
C.  SORE        D.  ORSE
Directions : In questions no.5 to 7, find the odd
word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
5.  A.  PRST        B.  MLNO
C.  ACDE        D.  HJKL
6.  A.  17        B.  19
C.  13        D.  15
7.  A.  Pen        B.  Paper
C.  Marker      D.  Highlighter
8.  Which one of the given responses would be
a meaningful order of the following?
1.  Key        2.  Door
3.  Lock        4.  Room
A.  1, 2, 3, 4      B.  1, 3, 2, 4
C.  1, 2, 4, 3      D.  4, 2, 1, 3
Directions :  In questions no. 9 and 10, a series
is  given  with  one  term  missing.  Out  of  the  four
alternatives,  choose  the  alternative  that  will
complete the series:
9.  6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?
A.  52        B.  56
C.  50        D.  53
10.  BDF, CFI, DHL, ?
A.  EJO        B.  EMI
C.  CJM        D.  EIM
11.  Find  the  missing  number  from  the  given
responses.
8   7    9
4   5    6
9   6    ?
288 210    162
A.  8         B.  7
C.  3         D.  4
12.  The  present  ages  of  Vikas  and  Sujit  are  in
the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years
hence,  the  ratio  of  their  ages  will  become
11 : 9 respectively. What is Sujit’s present
age in years?
A.  24        B.  18
C.  27        D.  6
13.  From the given alternatives select the word
which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word :
ORIENTAL
A.  LATIN      B.  RIOT
C.  RENT        D.  TALENT
14.  IF  ‘MOHAN’  is  coded  as  ‘KMFYL’,  then
‘COUNT’ will be coded as
A.  MSLAR      B.  SAMLR
C.  MASRL      D.  AMSLR
15.  Some  equations are  solved on the basis of
a  certain  system.  Find  out  the  correct
answer  for  the  unsolved  equation  on  that
basis
9 * 8 63, 7 * 8 49, 5 * 6 25, 11 * 7 ?    
A.  70        B.  66
C.  121        D.  77
16.  If  ‘+’  means  ‘×’,  ‘-‘  means  ‘+’,  ‘×’  means
‘÷’  and  ‘÷’  means  ‘-‘  then
12 2 6 7 5 ?     
A.  39        B.  40
C.  37        D.  38
17.  Two statements are given, followed by two
conclusions, I and II. You have to  consider
the  statements  to  be  true,  even  if  they
seem  to  be  at  variance  from  commonly
known facts. You are to decide which of the
given  conclusions  can  definitely  be  drawn
from  the  given  statements.  Indicate  your
answer.
Statements :
All men are aggressive.
All children are aggressive.
Conclusions :
I.  Men are children.
II.  Children are men.
A.  Both  conclusion  I  and  conclusion  II
follow
B.  Neither  conclusion  I  nor  conclusion  II
follows
C.  Only conclusion I follow
D.  Only conclusion II follows
18.  A  man  walks  from  a  point  towards  south.
He  turns  right  at  right  angle,  then  again
turns right at right angle. In what direction
is he walking now?
A.  North        B.  South
C.  East        D.  Wast
19.  A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown
below  in  the  question  figures.  From  the
given  answer  figures,  indicate  how  it  will
appear when opened.
Questions figures :
Answer figures :
20.  How  many  rectangles  are  there  in  the
given figure?
A.  5         B.  9
C.  4         D.  8
21.  Which  of  the  following  diagrams  correctly
represents the relationship amongst
Tiger, Elephant, Animal ?
22.  Which answer  figure  will  complete  the
pattern in the question figure?
Questions figures :
Answer figures :
23.  From  the  given  answer  figures,  select  the
one  in  which  the  question  figures  are
hidden/embedded.
Questions figures :
Answer figures :
24.  A  word  is  represented  by  only  one  set  of
numbers  as  given  in  any  one  of  the
alternatives.  The  sets  of  numbers  given  in
the  alternatives  are  represented  by  two
classes of alphabets as in the two matrices
given  below.  The  columns  and  rows  of
Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that
of  Matrix  II  are  numbered  from  5  to  9.  A
letter  from  these  matrices  can  be
represented first by its row and next by its
column, e.g., ‘E’ can be represented by 04,
21, etc., and ‘P’ can be represented by 56,
79,  etc.  Similarly,  you  have  to  identify  the
set for the word ‘MAXI’.
A.  68, 00, 65, 76  B.  86, 66, 56, 67
C.  67, 65, 44, 75  D.  76, 56, 34, 57
25.  If  a  mirror  is  placed  on  the  line  MN,  then
which  of  the  answer  figure  is  the  correct
image of the question figure?
Questions figures :
Answer figures :

FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED / CEREBRAL
PALSY CANDIDATES ONLY

19.  A  woman  introduces  a  man  as  the  son  of
the brother of her mother. How is the man
related to the woman?
A.  Uncle        B.  Cousin
C.  Nephew      D.  Son
20.  Select  the  number  which  does  not  belong
to the given series :
3, 9, 18, 30, 44, 63, 84
A.  44        B.  18
C.  30        D.  63
21.  C is  younger than D. A is  older than B but
younger than C. If D is younger than E but
older  than  A,  then  who  is  at  the  third
position in order of increasing age?
A.  C          B.  B
C.  E         D.  D
22.  If Wednesday was the first day of January,
2014, what was the last day of that years?
A.  Wednesday     B.  Monday
C.  Thursday     D.  Tuesday
23.  Five  men  A,  B,  C,  D  and  E  read  a
newspaper. The one who reads first gives it
to  C.  The  one  who  read  last  had  taken  it
from A. E was neither  the first nor the last
to read. There were two readers between B
and A. B passed the newspaper to whom?
A.  D          B.  E
C.  A         D.  C
24.  Arrange  the  following  words  as  in  the
dictionary and choose the third in order:
Scope,  Sceptile,  Septic,  Scapegoat,  Scrapbook
A.  Scapegoat    B.  Scope
C.  Septic      D.  Scrap-book
25.  In  a  line  of  boys,  Shyam’s  position  from
the  left  is  17
th
and  from  the  right  is  19
th
.
How many boys are there in the line?
A.  34        B.  37
C.  36        D.  35
PART B : NUMERICAL APTITUTDS
26.  What  was  the  rate  of  discount  if  a
computer  with  marked  price  `  30,000  was
sold for ` 28,000?
A.
1
7%
2
B.
2
6%
3
C.  15%        D.  20%
27.  A trader marks the sale price 25% more on
cost price and gives a 10% discount at the
time of selling. The gain percent is
A.
1
12 %
3
B.
1
11 %
2
C.  12%        D.
1
12 %
2
28.  Peter  bought  an  item  at  20%  discount  on
its  original  price.  He  sold  it  with  40%
increase on the price he bought it. The new
sale price  is greater than  the original price
(in percent) by
A.  8         B.  7.5
C.  12        D.  10
29.  The speeds of three cars are in the ratio of
1  :  3  :  5.  The  ratio  among  the  time  taken
by these cars to travel the same distance is
A.  15 : 3 : 5      B.  15 : 5 : 3
C.  5 : 3 : 1      D.  3 : 5 : 15
30.  `  1,980  is  divided  among  A,  B  and  C  so
that  half  of  A’s  part,  one-third  of  B’s  part
and  one-sixth  of  C’s  part  are  equal.  Then
B’s part is
A.  ` 660        B.  ` 1,080
C.  ` 360        D.  ` 540
31.  There are  222 red balls in a basket. A boy
takes  out  6  red  balls  from  it  and  replaces
them by 12 white balls. He continues to do
so till all the red balls are replaced by white
balls. Determine the number of white balls
put in the basket.
A.  111        B.  333
C.  222        D.  444
32.  The  least  number  to  be  subtracted  from
16800 to make it a perfect square is
A.  219        B.  159
C.  249          D.  169
33.  A can do a piece of work in 30 days while B
can do it in 40 days. In how many days can
A and B working together do it?
A.
1
27
7
days    B.
1
17
7
days
C.  70 days      D.
3
42
4
days
34.  3  men  and  5  women  can  do  a  work  in  14
days  while  5  men  can  do  it  in  14  days.  5
men  and  5  women  can  complete  the  work
in
A.  11 days      B.  10 days
C.  12 days      D.  13 days
35.  Three  small  lead  spheres  of  radii  3  cm,  4
cm  and  5  cm  respectively,  are  melted  into
a  single  sphere.  The  diameter  of  the  new
sphere is
A.  7 cm        B.  8 cm
C.  12 cm      D.  6 cm
36.  The  height  of  a  right  circular  cylinder  is
three  times  the  radius  of  the  base.  If  the
height  were  four  times  the  radius,  the
volume would be 1078 cc more than it was
previously. Find the radius of the base.
A.  5 cm        B.  7.5 cm
C.  7 cm        D.  6 cm
37.  A shopkeeper sold one-third of his goods at
a  loss  of  15%.  To  get  a  profit  of  10%  on
the  whole  transaction,  he  should  sell  the
remaining articles at a profit of
A.
2
16 %
3
B.  15%
C.  25%        D.
1
22 %
2
38.  An  examinee  has  to  secure  40%  marks  to
pass  an  examination.  He  secures  180
marks  and  fails  by  an  equal  number  of
marks.  The  total  number  of  marks  in  the
examination is
A.  1000        B.  1050
C.  800        D.  900
39.  The  monthly  salary  of  Mr.  Sachdev  gets
increased  by  5%,  thereby  his  salary
becomes  `  15,  120  per  annum.  His  earlier
monthly salary (before the increase) was
A.  ` 1,200      B.  ` 1,240
C.  ` 1,440      D.  ` 1,320
40.  Two  trains  of  equal  length  are  running  on
parallel  lines  in  the  same  direction  at  46
km/hour  and  36  km/hour.  The  faster  train
passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The
length of each train is
A.  80 m        B.  82 m
C.  50 m        D.  72 m
41.  A  man  walking  at  3  km/hour  crosses  a
square  field  diagonally  in  2  minutes.  The
area of the field (in square metres) is
A.  5000        B.  6000
C.  2500        D.  3000
42.  `  600  is  divided  among  A,  B  and  C,  `  46
more  than
2
th
5
of  A’s  share,`  20  more
than
2
th
7
of  B’s  share  and  `  10more  than
9
th
17
of  C’s  share  are  all  equal.  Then  A’s
share is
A.  ` 170        B.  ` 280
C.  ` 140        D.  ` 150
43.  The  average  of  prime  numbers  between  1
and 20 is
A.
5
9
8
B.
1
10
8
C.  8         D.  9
44.  A  certain  factory  employed  600  men  and
400  women  and  the  average  wage  was  `
2.55 per day. If a woman got 50 paise less
than a man, the daily wages of a man and
a woman were
A.  Man ` 5.30, Woman ` 2.50
B.  Man ` 2.50, Woman ` 2.00
C.  Man ` 3.25, Woman ` 2.75
D.  Man ` 2.75, Woman ` 2.25
45.  Rahul buys a book for ` 400 and sells it for
`  500. The difference between his profit as
a  percentage  of  the  buying  price  and  then
as a percentage of the selling price is
A.  5%        B.  0%
C.  20%        D.  25%
46.  A, B and C invested ` 13,000, ` 17,000 and
`  5,000  respectively  in  a  business.  At  the
end  of  the  year,  they  earn  a  profit  of  `
1,400. B’s share of profit is
A.  ` 410        B.  ` 630
C.  ` 720        D.  ` 680
47.  The  least  number  of  years  in  which  a  sum
of  money  on  19%  p.a.  compound  interest
will be more than double is
A.  4 years      B.  5 years
C.  2 years      D.  3 years
48.  B  borrows  `  5,000  from  A  at  8%  p.a.
simple  interest  and  leads  it  to  C  at
compound interest of 10% p.a. If B collects
the  money  back  from  C  after  2  years  and
repays  A,  the  profit  made  by  B  in  the
transaction is
A.  ` 500        B.  ` 450
C.  ` 600        D.  ` 1,050
Directions  :  The  following  histogram  shows  the
relationship  between  the  marks  obtained  by  the
students  and  the  number  of  students  in  an
examination.  Study  the  histogram  and  answer
the questions no. 49 and 50.
49.  The  percentage  of  students  who  obtained
40 marks or less is
A.  less than 25, but not 15
B.  more than 24
C.  15
D.  25
50.  The  ratio  of  the  number  of  students  who
obtained  60  or  more  marks  to  that  of
students who obtained 60 or less marks is
A.  15 : 19      B.  14 : 17
C.  16 : 16      D.  15 : 16

FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED/CEREBRAL
PALSY CONDIDATES ONLY

49.  The  greatest  length  of  the  scale  that  can
measure exactly 30 cm, 90 cm, 1 m 20 cm
and 1 m 35 cm lengths is
A.  15 cm      B.  30 cm
C.  5 cm        D.  10 cm
50.  If  the  ratio  of
1
n
n
 
 
and
1
n
n
 
 
be  5  :
4, then the value of n is
A.
4 
B.
5 
C.
2 
D.
3 
Directions :  In questions no. 51 to 60, a part of
the  sentence  many  have  errors.  Find  out  which
part of the sentence has an error and blacken the
circle  (.)  corresponding  to  the  appropriate  letter
(A, B, C). The sentence is free error, blacken the
circle  corresponding  to  “No  error”  in  the  Answer
Sheet.
51.  I did not see/Meenu/since Monday/
(A)      (B)      (C)
No error.
(D)
52.  While I was driving home./I heard some
(A)                (B)
shocking news /at the ratio./No error.
(C)      (D)
53.  The old man/is too weak /to walk./No error
(A)      (B)        (C)      (D)
54.  Everyone of us has to be/very vigilant to
(A)              (B)
safeguard/our hardly won liberty./No error
(C)            (D)
55.  Yesterday, I met a man/who was blind/
(A)              (B)
with the right eye/No error
(C)        (D)
56.  The two first chapters of this book/are very
(A)
interesting,/the remaining ones are boring.
(B)          (C)
No error
(D)
57.  The manager is having his problems/but
(A)
we have/ours as well/No error.
(B)    (C)        (D)
58.  The large balloons/I bought for Christmas/
(A)            (B)
is very nice./No error
(C)      (D)
59.  Every member of the committee/have been
(A)                    (B)
present/at all the meetings./No error.
(C)          (D)
60.  I will try to/tell to you/what you must do./
(A)    (B)            (C)
No error.
(D)
Directions  :  In  questions  no.  61  to  70,
sentences a gives with blanks to be filled in with
appropriate  word(s).  Four  alternatives  are
suggested
61.  Karen  sat  at  the  table  _________  a
newspaper.
A.  fidgeting      B.  looking
C.  reading      D.  writing
62.  Two  _________  were  sent  to  garrison  the
town
A.  regimes      B.  troops
C.  regiments    D.  armies
63.  The  Ambassador  was  better  __________
than the other delegates.
A.  presentable    B.  bred
C.  prepared      D.  thoughtful
64.  He aimed the blow _________my left eye.
A.  at         B.  from
C.  to        D.  in
65.  The  river  abounds__________  fish  and
crocodiles.
A.  of        B.  at
C.  on        D.  with
66.  The  auditor  was  asked  to_________  the
accounts.
A.  check        B.  spot
C.  cheque      D.  count
67.  Every  student  had  to  abide  _________the
ruples and regulations of the hostel.
A.  by        B.  against
C.  with        D.  in
68.  Coventry is_____________ Birmingham.
A.  next        B.  beside
C.  near        D.  nearby
69.  To err is _______, to forgive divine.
A.  natural      B.  kindness
C.  humane      D.  human
70.  The  village  is  _________Sheffield  (in
England). It’s only six miles away.
A.  near        B.  before
C.  along        D.  by
Directions  :  In  questions  no.  71  to  73,  out  of
the  four  alternatives,  choose  the  one  which  best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
71.  Recollect
A.  Remember    B.  Unite
C.  Assemble      D.  Return
72.  Grave
A.  Still        B.  Serious
C.  Sad        D.  Dead
73.  Advance
A.  Give        B.  Change
C.  More forward   D.  Bend
Directions  :  In  questions  no.  74  to  76,  out  of
the  four  alternatives,  choose  the  one  which  best
expresses  the  meaning  opposite  to  the  given
word.
74.  Cautious
A.  Inviting      B.  Careful
C.  Exude      D.  Daring
75.  Flippant
A.  Warm      B.  Urgent
C.  Busy        D.  Earnest
76.  Lethal
A.  Harmless     B.  Just
C.  Good       D.  Secure
Directions  :  In  questions  no.  77  to  79,  four
alternatives  are  given  for  the  Idiom/Phrase
underlined  in  the  sentence.  Choose  the
alternative  which  best  expresses  the  meaning  of
the Idiom/Phrase.
77.  Our  manager  is  feared  by  everyone  for  he
is as hard as nails.
A.  unrelenting     B.  fearsome
C.  strict        D.  powerful
78.  We talked over  the  matter  for  an  hour  but
without any result.
A.  fought about    B.  discussed
C.  surveyed      D.  assessed
79.  He  struck  several  bad  patches  before  he
made good.
A.  went through many illnesses
B.  had many professional difficulties
C.  came across bad weather
D.  eliminated many difficulties
Directions  :  In  questions  no.  80  to  84,  a
sentence or a part of the sentence is underlined.
Below  are  given  alternatives  to  the  underlined
part  which  may  improve  the  sentence.  Choose
the  correct  alternative.  In  case  no  improvement
is  required,  blacken  the  circle
  •
corresponding
to “No improvement” in the Answer Sheet.
80.  The hill is too high for climbing.
A.  for climbing up
B.  for going up
C.  to climb
D.  no improvement
81.  I  can  always  count  on  him  in  times  of
difficulty.
A.  count at him
B.  count on he
C.  count him on
D.  no improvement
82.  The  economic  environment  is  of  late
conducive for major political changes.
A.  conductive with
B.  conducive to
C.  conducive about
D.  no improvement
83.  My interest in Physics has decreased.
A.  has diminished
B.  has shortened
C.  has been deceased
D.  no improvement
84.  There was a few drop of rain.
A.  was a few drops
B.  were a few drops
C.  were a few drop
D.  no improvement
Directions  :  In  questions  no.  85  to  89,  out  of
the  four  alternatives,  choose  the  one  which  can
most  appropriately  substitute  the  given  word(s)
or sentence.
85.  Made or done without previous preparation
A.  Impromptu    B.  Urgent
C.  Prompt      D.  Immediate
86.  A house where children with no parents are
taken care of
A.  Hospital      B.  Nursery
C.  Orphanage    D.  Creche
87.  An uneducated person
A.  Clown      B.  Instructor
C.  Illiterate       D.  Joker
88.  A person learning a trade under someone
A.  Secretary      B.  Clerk
C.  Apprentice    D.  Assistant
89.  That which is unlawful
A.  Court       B.  Bail
C.  Illicit        D.  Legal
Directions  :  In  questions  no.  90  to  95,  four
words  are  given,  out  of  which  only  one  word  is
correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
90.  A.  Pessimism    B.  Pessimmism
C.  Pessimisism    D.  Pesimisism
91.  A.  Suppose      B.  Suppos
C.  Supose      D.  Suposse
92.  A.  University    B.  Uneversity
C.  Univarsity    D.  Universitee
93.  A.  Marryiage    B.  Marrage
C.  Marriage      D.  Mariage
94.  A.  Innumarable    B.  Innumereble
C.  Innumerable    D.  Inumerable
95.  A.  Guarantee    B.  Guaranty
C.  Guarenty     D.  Gauranty

Directions  :  In  questions  no.  96  to  100,  read 
the  following  passage  carefully  and  choose  the 
most appropriate to each question out of the four 
alternatives.

Radium  is  a  white  powder  that  looks  like  tablesalt. A pound of it is worth a thousand pounds of
gold.  Radium  is  very  costly  because  it  is  so
scarce.  A  mere  pinch  of  it  is  worth  a  small
fortune.  There are only a few spoonfuls in all the
world.  But  radium  is  so  powerful  that  too  much
of it would be dangerous. If a pound or two could
be gathered at one spot it would kill people who
came  near.  Through  radium,  scientists  hope  to
learn how to change one element into another. It
would  be  interesting  and  profitable  to  change
other  metals  into  gold.  But  it  would  be  worth
more  to  man  to  learn  how  to  get  all  the  power
from the atoms to do man’s work.
96.  Radium is considered dangerous because
A.  it  would  kill  millions  due  to  its
radioactivity.
B.  it is so scarce.
C.  it  would  tell  us  how  to  get  power  from
radium.
D.  it  would  help  us  to  turn  other  metals
into gold.
97.  The antonym of ‘scarce’ is
A.  abundant      B.  wealth
C.  rare        D.  insufficient
98.  What  is  the  main  subject  of  discussion  in
the passage?
A.  Radium      B.  Salt
C.  Gold        D.  Silver
99.  The word ‘fortune’ here means
A.  freedom      B.  power
C.  inheritance    D.  wealth
100.  Why is radium very costly?
A.  It is found in small quantities.
B.  It helps man do his work.
C.  It is very useful.
D.  It is powerful and dangerous.

PART D : GENERAL AWARENESS

101.  Which  of  the  following  authorities  is/are
competent  to  issue  writs  for  the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A.  Supreme Court
B.  Supreme Court and High Courts
C.  Parliament
D.  President
102.  Which of the following is used as a logo of
the World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature?
A.  Camel      B.  Lion
C.  Dear        D.  Panda
103.  Which  of  the  following  contains  Alberuni’s
account of India?
A.  Futuh-us-Salatin
B.  Tarikh-i-Yamini
C.  Kitab-ul-Hind
D.  Chochnama
104.  Buddha  gave  his  first  sermon  at  the  Deer
Park in
A.  Sarnath       B.  Sanchi
C.  Lumbini      D.  Magadha
105.  ‘Mohen-jo-daro’ in Sidhi means
A.  The food of Pashupathi
B.  The land of Shiva
C.  The mound of the dead
D.  The city of evil spirits
106.  What was Hampi known for?
A.  It  has  the  largest  stable  in  medical
India
B.  It  had  the  translation  of  the  Indian
epies to Persian
C.  It was the capital of Vijayanagara
D.  It was the capital of Goleonda
107.  What was Kuomintang?
A.  A faseist party in Japan
B.  A terrorist organisation in China
C.  A nationalist party in China
D.  A nationalist party in Japan
108.  Where  is  the  Forest  Research  Institute  of
India located?
A.  Delhi        B.  Lucknow
C.  Bhopal       D.  Dehradun
109.  An economy in which there are no flows of
labour,  goods  or  money  to  and  from  other
nations is a/an
A.  mixed economy
B.  closed economy
C.  open economy
D.  slow economy
110.  Elasticity  of  demand  is  the  degree  of
responsiveness  of  demand  of  a  commodity
to a
A.  change in the price of substitutes
B.  change in consumer’s tastes
C.  change in its price
D.  change in consumers’ wealth
111.  The price of a commodity is the same as
A.  Total cost     B.  Average cost
C.  Total revenue    D.  Average revenue
112.  Which one of the following is not a feature
of monopoly?
A.  Heavy selling costs
B.  Barriers to entry of new firms
C.  Price discrimination
D.  Single seller of the product
113.  The supply of labour in the market depends
on
A.  the size of population
B.  the  number  of  person  hours  put  in  by
each person
C.  the  proportion  of  the  population  in  the
labour force
D.  All the above
114.  The term ‘Faternity’ in the Preamble  of the
Indian Constitution means a sense of
A.  statehood    B.  love and affection
C.  brotherhood    D.  friendliness
115.  Who presides over the sitting of the House
of People?
A.  The Chief justice of India
B.  The Speaker
C.  The President
D.  The Vice President
116.  How many languages are recognized in the
8
th
Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
A.  16        B.  20
C.  14        D.  22
117.  Vegetables  are  cooked  in  lesser  time  by
adding  a  pinch  of  salt  while  cooking
because
A.  latent  heat  of  vaporization  of  water
deceases
B.  latent  heat  of  vaporization  of  water
increases
C.  boiling point of water decreases
D.  boiling point of water increases
118.  Hydraulic brakes in automobiles work on
A.  Pascal’s principle
B.  Archimedes’ principle
C.  Bernouili’s principle
D.  Poiseuille’s principle
119.  The  basic  process  taking  place  in  nuclear
reactors is
A.  Fusion
B.  Fission
C.  Radioactivity
D.  None of the above
120.  _________is required to boot a computer.
A.  Operating system
B.  Assembler
C.  Complier
D.  Loader
121.  __________  is  the  part  of  the  Central
Processing Unit (CPU).
A.  Arithmetic and Logic Unit
B.  Keyboard
C.  Printer
D.  Monitor
122.  Direct access of file is also known as
A.  relative access
B.  file access
C.  sequential access
D.  random access
123.  Which  one  of  the  following  is  a
carbohydrate?
A.  Insulin      B.  Glycine
C.  Glucose      D.  Urea
124.  The source of oxygen in atmosphere is due
to
A.  Excretion     B.  Nitrogen fixation
C.  Respiration    D.  Photosynthesis
125.  Riboflavin is a/an
A.  Hormone      B.  Fatty acid
C.  Enxyme      D.  Vitamin
126.  Locomotory organ of a starfish is
A.  Paddle      B.  Muscular foot
C.  Flipper      D.  Tube feet
127.  The  latex  of  which  plant  is  use
commercially?
A.  Sial kanta plant
B.  Rubber plant
C.  Banyan tree
D.  Papaya plant
128.  The  fuse  in  an  electric  circuit  is  connected
in
A.  parallel to live
B.  parallel to neutral
C.  series with live
D.  series with neutral
129.  Which one of the following is the indirect us
of forests?
A.  Checking soil erosion
B.  Building material
C.  Grazing
D.  Medicinal plants
130.  Which  one  of  the  following  States  produce
the largest amount of spices?
A.  Assam
B.  Karnataka
C.  Jammu & Kashmir
D.  Kerala
131.  The percentage of India’s forested land out
of total land is
A.  25%        B.  less than 25%
C.  33%        D.  Kerala
132.  Ahmedabad is situated along the bank of
A.  Narmada river  B.  Banas river
C.  Luni river      D.  Sabarmati river
133.  The only living tissue in plant xylem is
A.  Xylem fibre    B.  Xylem parenchym
C.  Trachied      D.  Trachea
134.  ‘Insectivorous plants’ trap insects for
A.  Fats        B.  Vitamins
C.  Carbohydrates  D.  Nitrogen
135.  Which  action  movie  star  was  awarded  on
November,  2016  the  honorary  Academy
(Oscar)  Award  for  this  extraordinary
achievements in the movies?
A.  Guy Ryder    B.  Ferdinand Marcos
C.  Jackie Chan    D.  Anil Kapoor
136.  Which  ground  is  called  the  ‘Meeca  of
Cricket’?
A.  Melbourne Cricket Ground
B.  Green Park
C.  Lords
D.  Eden Gardens
137.  Where is FIFA, 2018 scheduled to be held?
A.  Spain        B.  Argentina
C.  Russia      D.  Portugal
138.  Which  one  of  the  following  has  not  been
launched  during  the  tenure  of  the  NDA
Government at the Centre?
A.  MGNREGA Programme
B.  Swachch Bharat Abhiyan
C.  Ujjwala Yojana
D.  Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
139.  Which one of the following organisations is
a financial institution?
A.  IFCO        B.  SEBI
C.  ICICI       D.  KVIC
140.  NITI Aayog is a
A.  Think Tank
B.  NGO
C.  Constitutional Body
D.  Statutory Body
141.  Which  one  of  the  following  manages  the
computer resources?
A.  Programmes    B.  Texts
C.  Exit        D.  Boot
142.  Over  the  years,  birth  rate  in  India  has
__________and death rate had ________.
A.  risen, risen
B.  fallen, risen
C.  fallen, fallen
D.  risen, fallen
143.  Malathion is a/an
A.  fumigant      B.  preservative
C.  pesticide      D.  insecticide
144.  The working of a dry cell is based on
A.  Spontaneous  oxidation  -  reduction
reaction
B.  Combination reaction
C.  Electrolysis
D.  Decomposition reactions
145.  Biosphere refers to
A.  the  part  of  ocean  inhabited  by  plants
and animals
B.  the  portion  of  the  earth,  including  the
oceans,  the  land,  the  soil  and  the
atmosphere  inhabited  by  living
organisms
C.  the  atmosphere  surrounding  the  living
organisms
D.  the area of the land inhabited by living
organisms
146.  Which of the following causes swine flu?
A.  Fungi        B.  Tapeworm
C.  Virus        D.  Bacteria
147.  Which  of  the  following  is  the  lower
atmospheric layer?
A.  Stratosphere
B.  Troposphere
C.  Hydrosphere
D.  Lithosphere
148.  Which  of  the  following  phenomena
supposedly associated with global warming
A.  La Nina
B.  EI Nino Modaki
C.  Southern Oscillation
D.  EI Nino
149.  The Ranganatha Temple is situated at
A.  Tirupati      B.  Chennai
C.  Srirangam    D.  Kanchipuram
150.  Who  among  the  following  is  a  famous
Indian painter?
A.  Yamini Krishnamurthy
B.  M.F. Hussain
C.  Ravi Shankar
D.  Balamuralikrishna
***

SSC MTS ANSWER KEY


1.  C
2.  D
3.  B
4.  A
5.  B
6.  D
7.  B
8.  B
9.  B
10.  A
11.  C
12.  A
13.  D
14.  D
15.  B
16.  D
17.  B
18.  A
19.  D
20.  B
21.  A
22.  B
23.  D
24.  A
25.  B
26.  B
27.  D
28.  C
29.  B
30.  D
31.  D
32.  B
33.  B
34.  B
35.  D
36.  C
37.  D
38.  D
39.  A
40.  C
41.  A
42.  D
43.  A
44.  D
45.  A
46.  D
47.  A
48.  B
49.  A,  B  (answer
is 24.19)
50.  C
51.  A
52.  C
53.  D
54.  C
55.  C
56.  A
57.  A
58.  C
59.  B
60.  B
61.  C
62.  B
63.  A
64.  A
65.  D
66.  A
67.  A
68.  D
69.  C
70.  A
71.  C
72.  D
73.  C
74.  C
75.  D
76.  A
77.  C
78.  B
79.  B
80.  C
81.  D
82.  B
83.  D
84.  B
85.  A
86.  C
87.  C
88.  C
89.  C
90.  A
91.  A
92.  A
93.  C
94.  C
95.  A
96.  A
97.  A
98.  A
99.  D
100.  A
101.  B
102.  D
103.  C
104.  A
105.  C
106.  C
107.  C
108.  D
109.  B
110.  A
111.  B
112.  C
113.  D
114.  C
115.  B
116.  D
117.  C
118.  A
119.  B
120.  D
121.  A
122.  C
123.  C
124.  D
125.  D
126.  D
127.  B
128.  C
129.  A
130.  D
131.  B
132.  D
133.  B
134.  D
135.  C
136.  C
137.  C
138.  A
139.  B
140.  D
141.  A
142.  D
143.  C
144.  C
145.  B
146.  C
147.  B
148.  C
149.  D
150.  B

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